I'm confused, the israeli study you cite shows many more adverse events in the vaccinated group than unvaccinated group. The study then goes on to compare covid infection to vaccination. Why didn't it just stop at vaccinated vs unvaccinated? Btw, the myocarditis risk is not statistically different in infection vs vaccine, but the observed rate in vaccines is much lower than other more careful studies less prone to under-reporting bias.
All-in-all, this trick has been played for the past year, compare vaccines to infection without taking into account the probability of symptomatic infection (which you don't need to do if you just stopped at vaccinated vs unvaccinated, or if you hadn't unblinded controls in the phase 3 trials....)
I'm confused, the israeli study you cite shows many more adverse events in the vaccinated group than unvaccinated group. The study then goes on to compare covid infection to vaccination. Why didn't it just stop at vaccinated vs unvaccinated? Btw, the myocarditis risk is not statistically different in infection vs vaccine, but the observed rate in vaccines is much lower than other more careful studies less prone to under-reporting bias.
All-in-all, this trick has been played for the past year, compare vaccines to infection without taking into account the probability of symptomatic infection (which you don't need to do if you just stopped at vaccinated vs unvaccinated, or if you hadn't unblinded controls in the phase 3 trials....)